G1

The f factor:

A. is the roentgen to cGy conversion factor

B. is greatest for high Z materials and low energy photons

C. is 0.873 in air

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

G2.

Exposure is:

A. the amount of energy in joules/kg transferred from a photon beam to a material

B. only defined for photons and charged particles below 3 MeV

C. the charge liberated by photons in a given mass of air

D. the absorbed dose multiplied by the quality factor

E. none of the above

G3.

1 mSv is equivalent to:

A.  1mrem

B.  l0mrad

C. 100 m roentgen

D. 10 mCi

E.  100mrem

G4.

Dose equivalent is greater than absorbed dose for:

A. x-rays above 10MeV

B. superficial x-rays

C. electrons

D. neutrons

E. all charged particles

G5-9.

An electron is electrostatically _____by a/an:

A. attracted

B. not affected

C. repelled

G5. Alpha particle

G6. Electron

G7. Positron

G8. Proton

G9. Neutron

GlO-13.

Match the property to the particle:

A. no charge; negligible mass

B. no charge: mass of 1.6 x 10*-27 kg

C. charge of +1; mass of 9.1 x 10*-31 kg

D. no charge; mass of 9.1 x 10*-31 kg

E. charge of 2; mass of 4 amu

G10. Neutrino

G11. Alpha particle

G12. Positron

G13. Neutron

G14.

Elements which have the same Z but different A are called:

A. isobars

B. isomers

C. isotones

D. isotopes

G15.

The mass number (A) of an atom is equal to the sum of the:

A. neutrons

B. protons

C. nucleons

D. atomic masses minus the total binding energy

E. atomic masses plus the total binding energy

G16.

The number of neutrons in a cobalt-60 atom (Z = 27) is:

A. 27

B. 60

C. 33

D. 7

E. cannot tell from information given

G17.

The binding energy of an electron in the K-shell is:

A. the energy the electron needs to stay in the K-shell

B. the energy needed to make a transition to the L-shell from the K-shell

C. the energy needed for an electron to jump from the L- to the K-shell

D. the energy needed to remove an electron from the K-shell

E. none of the above

G18.

When an electron is removed from an atom, the atom is said to be:

A. radioactive

B. ionized

C. inert

D. excited

E. metastable

G19.

The binding energy per nucleon usually:

A. does not change in beta decay

B. increases after radioactive decay to the ground state

C. is independent of Z

D. is minimum for intermediate values of Z

G20.

The maximum number of electrons in a shell:

A. is always 8

B. is always 2

C. is 2n*2, where n is the principle quantum number

D. none of the above

G21.

The half-life of a radioisotope is:

A. influenced by temperature and pressure

B. directly proportional to the decay constant

C. usually shorter for beta minus than beta plus emitters

D. less than the average life

E. all of the above

G22.

A 99mTc source (half-life =6 hours) of 20 mCi will decay in 3 hours to about _______ mCi:

A. 17

B. 15

C. 14

D. 10

E. 5

G23.

If an administered radionuclide undergoes biological elimination, the effective half-life is ______ the physical half-life.

A. longer than

B. equal to

C. shorter than

G24.

The decay constant is:

A. inversely proportional to the half-life

B. the fractional decay in a given time

C. equal to the reciprocal of the average life

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

G25.

The mass number (A) changes only for _____ decay.

A. alpha (α)

B. beta minus (β-)

C. beta plus (β+)

D. electron capture

E. isomeric

G26.

Two nuclides have the following properties:

                                Nuclide I                 Nuclide ll

Atomic number              Z                         Z -1

Mass number                 A                        A

Atomic mass                 M (MeV)             M - 2 (MeV)

Nuclide I may transform into Nuclide II by (answer A for true and B for false):

1. beta plus decay

2. isobaric transition

3. isomeric transition

A. 1 only

B. 1,2

C.2,3

D. 3 only

B. 1,2,3

G27

                99Mo  -->  99mTc --> 99Tc

                            (l)                (II)

In the above decay of molybdenum, the modes of decay labeled (I) and (ll) are, respectively:

A. beta minus, isomeric transition

B. isomeric transition, beta minus

C. beta plus, isomeric transition

D. beta minus, beta minus

B. electron capture, beta minus

G28.

Positrons eventually combine with electrons in matter resulting in:

A. a particle with equivalent mass but no charge

B. equivalent energy in the form of a photon

C. two particles emitted in opposite directions

D. two photons of equal energy emitted in opposite directions

G29.

Select the change in atomic number (Z) which occurs during electron capture.

A. Z --> Z+2

B. Z --> Z+ 1

C. Z --> Z

D. Z --> Z-1

E. Z --> Z-2

G30-31.

Match the type of radioactive decay with the method of radionuclide production (answers may be used more than once):

A. alpha emission

B. beta minus emission

C. beta plus emission

D. isomeric transition

G30. Bombarding a sample with neutrons in a reactor

G31. Fission products from reactor fuel rods

G32.

Which of the following occurs one month after a radium source (half-life 1600 years) is sealed in a tube with its daughter radon (half-life 3.8 days)?

A. transient equilibrium

B. secular equilibrium

C. equilibrium has not yet occurred

G33.

Relative to the input, the output of a step-up transformer exhibits the following characteristics:

A. incased power

B. decreased voltage

C. increased current

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

G34.

5.0 Ci is equal to:

A. 1.85 MBq

B. 7.4 GBq

C. 1.35 x 10*-10 Bq

D. 185 GBq

E. 135 MBq

G35.

The exposure rate at 1 meter from a point source of 10 mCi of cesium-137 is:

(T= exposure rate constant =3.3 R-cm*2 / mCi-hr]

A.  3 mR/hr

B.  3.3 R/min

C.  33 R/hr

D.  3.3 R/hr

B.  3.3 mR/hr

G36.

The reason that the gamma factor for cobalt-60 is greater than the gamma factor for cesium-137 is:

A. cobalt-60 has a shorter half-life

B. cesium-137 has a higher energy gamma-ray

C. cobalt-60 emits more than one gamma per disintegration

D. A, B, and C all contribute

B. none of the above because gamma for cesium-137 is higher than for cohalt-60

G37.

The rotating anode gives:

A.  small effective focus and large heat loading capacity

B. better controlled exposure time

C. less soft radiation

D. mechanical rectification

E. all of the above

G38.

The purpose of the x-ray tube filament found in an x-ray circuit is to:

A. allow current to flow in one direction only

B. increase or decrease voltage

C. create electrons by thermionic emission

D. measure time of exposure

B. measure tube current

G39.

100 keV electrons lose energy in an x-ray target via:

(a) production of characteristic radiation,

(b) production of bremsstrahlung radiation, and

(c) heat loss

Rank these three phenomena in order of decreasing magnitude:

A. abc

B. cab

C. bac

D. bca

E. cba

G40.

The maximum energy of characteristic radiation always increases with:

A. energy of the incident electron

B. atomic number of the target

C. filament current

D. tube current

G41-43.

Consider an atom which has the following binding energies:

K-shell =30 keV,  L-shell = 4.0 keV, and M-shell = 0.7 keV

Match the energies of possible emissions for 50 keV incident electrons:

A. characteristic x-rays only

B. bremsstrahlung only

C. both A and B

D. neither A or B

041. 25.3keV

042. 26keV

043. 49.3keV

G44.

Concerning x-ray beam output, which of the following is not true?

A. beam quality depends on the waveform

B. beam quality is independent of tube current

C. a graph of intensity versus photon energy is the best description of the x-ray tube output

D. small changes in filament current will affect beam quality

E. beams of different maximum kV and filtration can have the same HVL.

G45.

The half-value layer (HVL) of an x-ray beam is:

A. equal to 1/2 the linear attenuation coefficient

B. directly proportional to the mass absorption coefficient

C. directly proportional to the linear attenuation coefficient

D. inversely proportional to the linear attenuation coefficient

G46.  If a diagnostic x-ray beam has a first HVL of 3 mm aluminum, then adding 6 mm of Al to the filtration would decrease the intensity to:

A. 50%

B. somewhat more than 25%

D. somewhat less than 25%

C.25%

E 12.5%

G47-49.

For the next three questions:

A. radio waves

B. ultraviolet

C. visible light

D. gamma rays

E. none of the above

047. Which has the shortest wavelength?

048. Which has the lowest frequency?

049. Which has an energy of about 2 eV?

G50.

Of the following types of electromagnetic radiation, which cannot be detected by film?

1. Radio waves

2. Ultraviolet

3. Microwaves

4. Gamma

A. 1,2,3

B. 1, 3

C. 2,4

D. 4 only

E. all of the above

G51.

If a gamma source produces an exposure of 100 mR at 50cm, the exposure at l00cm will be:

A.  4OOmR

B.  200mR

C. 1OOmR

D.  5OmR

B.  25mR

G52.

A photon has a frequency of 3 MHz. Its wavelength is:

A.  1 cm

B.  3cm

C.  9m

D.  l00m

B. 1000m

G53.

A.  the thickness of the absorber

B.  the initial beam intensity

C.  the mass attenuation coefficient

D. the linear attenuation coefficient

B. the half-value thickness

G54.

The mass attenuation coefficient is similar for most materials (except those containing hydrogen) when:

A. the photoelectric effect predominates

B. pair production predominates

C. only Compton interactions occur

D. photonuclear disintegration predominates.

B. none of the above

G55.

CT or Hounsfield numbers are linearly related to:

A. mass density

B. electron density

C. linear attenuation coefficient

D. mass attenuation coefficient

E. effective atomic number

G56.

If the intensity of a beam is reduced to 50% after passing through an absorber of thickness x Cm, the linear attenuation coefficient is:

A. 0.693 / x

B. 0.693x

C.  x / 0.693

D.  x12.0

E. 2x

G57.

If 1% of the primary radiation is transmitted through a patient, the midline dose due to the primary radiation is approximately _____ % of the entrance dose.

A.2

B. 10

C.25

D.50

E.90

G58.

If one curie (Ci) of a radionuclide is adequately protected by 5 HVLs, _______  HVLs are needed to offer equal protection from 4 Ci.

A.  2

B.  6

C.  7

D.  9

E. 10  

G59.

In a typical diagnostic x-ray beam:

A. the second HVL is less than the first due to beam hardening

B. the first HVL is equal to the second for polyenergetic beams

C. the HVL is always equal to the added plus inherent filtration

D. the HVL depends on the mAs setting

E. the second HVL is greater than the first due to beam hardening

G60.

For the same exposure to a diagnostic beam, the highest absorbed dose will occur in:

A. fat

B.  soft tissue

C. lung

D. bone

E.  all the same

G61.

The binding energies for lead are K: 88 keV, L: 20 keV, M: 4 keV. A photon of energy 88.5 keV is most likely to undergo a photoelectric interaction with electrons in the:

A. K shell

B. L shell

C. M shell

D. All of the above are equally likely.

G62. Two absorbers, A and B, have atomic numbers 4 and 8 respectively. The ratio of the photoelectric components of their mass attenuation coefficients (A: B) is:

A 1:2

B. 1:4

C. 1:8

D. 1:16

E. 1:64

G63.

Which of the following is not true regarding photoelectric interactions? (Choose only one)

A. they are mainly responsible for differential attenuation in diagnostic radiographs.

B. the incident photon is totally absorbed

C. the probability increases rapidly with atomic number and energy

D. bound electrons are involved.

G64.

A 5 keV photon undergoing classical scatter would be most likely to lose ______% of its energy in the process.

A. zero

B. 10

C.33

D.50

E.90

G65.

In the Compton interaction of a megavoltage photon:

A. the scattered photon generally retains most of the initial photon energy.

B. the recoil electron generally acquires most of the initial photon energy.

C. the initial photon energy is generally divided almost evenly between the scattered photon and the recoil electron.

D. the scattered photon can never have an energy greater than 0.511 MeV.

E. the recoil electron can never have an energy greater than 0.511 MeV.

G66.

Which of the following is not true regarding Compton interactions?

A. the ratio of the mass attenuation coefficients of lead and water is approximately in the ratio of their effective Z values.

B. photons can be backscattered

C. the greatest energy is transferred to a Compton electron when it is ejected in the direction of the incident photon.

D. Compton electrons cannot be backscattered

E. Compton interactions are responsible for loss of contrast in diagnostic radiographs.

G67.

Concerning pair production, which of the following is true?

A. the threshold energy for pair production is 0.511 MeV.

B. an electron and a positron are produced

C. the total kinetic energy of an incident photon is divided between the kinetic energies of the particles.

D. the annihilation of a positron produces 1.02 MeV photons.

B. the electron and positron are emitted in opposite directions.

G68.

The energy absorbed in pair production is:

A. the incident photon energy Ei

B.  Ei - l.02MeV

C.  Ei - recoil energy of the nucleus

D.  Ei - 0.511 MeV

G69-71.

Match the curve in the diagram below with the interaction it represents.

A. photoelectric

B. coherent scatter

C. photonuclear disintegration

D. Compton

E. pair production

G69. Curve #1

G70. Curve #2

G71: Curve #3

G72-74.

For the next three questions, pick the most appropriate interaction process:

A. coherent scattering

B. photoelectric effect

C. Compton scattering

D. pair production

G72. Dominant at photon energies or 100 keV to 2 MeV in tissue.

G73. No energy is transferred (or locally absorbed).

G74. Increases with increasing photon energy and Z.

G75.

Electrons lose energy when passing through matter by:

A. I & 2 only                       1. production of bremsstrahlung

B. 3 & 4 only                     2. photoelectric interactions

C. 1, 3, & 4 only                3. collision with other electrons

D. all are correct              4. production or "delta" rays

G76.

Order by increasing LET the following radiation types:

1. 1 MeV photon

2. 1 MeV proton

3. 1 MeV electron

4. 1 MeV alpha

A1,2,3,4

B.2,3,4,1

C. 3,4,1,2

D.4, 1, 2,3

E.1,3,2,4

G77.

Concerning neutron interactions with matter, which of the following is false? The neutrons:

A. may remain in the target nucleus

B. interact primarily with oxygen in H2O.

C. may cause the ejection of an alpha particle

D. may induce radioactivity in the target

E. transfer a large fraction of energy by the process of elastic scattering.

G78.

The energy threshold for neutron production from photon interactions with matter is _____ MeV.

A. 0.511

B. 1.02

C. 2.40

D. 8

E  15

G79.

Which of the following does not reduce patient dose (for the same optical density on the film)?

A. the use of screens

B. using a high kvp

C. the use of a high ratio grid

D. all of the above, since none reduce patient dose

E. collimating the beam down to match the cassette

G80.

In a screen-to-screen comparison, the faster x-ray screen:

A. will show greater detail in a radiograph

B. requires higher patient dose

C. is thinner and has smaller grained crystals.

D. releases more electrons per absorbed x-ray

E.  converts light to low-energy electrons more efficiently

G81.

In a chi-square test looking for a statistically significant difference between two experimental results, claims of such a difference with a p value of 0.01:

A.  means there is unquestionably a difference between the two results

B. allows the experimenter a wider latitude (or error than would a p value of 0.05

C. means there Is a 99% chance that the claim is correct

D. means there is a 99% chance that the claim is incorrect

E.  assumes that the two results obey binomial statistics

G82.

For maximum precision in determining the activity of a radioactive sample As, the sample should be counted for a longer time than the background which has activity Ab.   The optimum ratio of the counting times is:

A. As:Ab

B. As*1/2 : Ab*1/2

C. As*1/2 : Ab

D. As*2 : Ab

E As : Ab*1/2

G83.

ROM is memory that can be:

A.  used and changed freely

B. freely read but not written to

C. repeatedly used to store output from an input device

D. used only with alpha-numeric characters

E. randomly accessed

084.

List the following in terms of information storage capacity (highest to lowest):

F = Floppy disk

H = Single hard disk

M = Multiplatter hard disk

O= Optical disk

A. HFOM

B. FMOH

C. MFHO

D. OMHF

E. FHMO

G85.

The most significant source of man-made radiation dose to the population as a whole is from:

A. high altitude air travel

B. television receivers and other consumer products

C. fallout from nuclear weapons exploded in the atmosphere

D. diagnostic radiological examinations

E. nuclear reactor effluents

G86.

Radon represents an environmental hazard primarily in:

A. high rise apartment buildings

B. wooden buildings

C. basements and ground floor apartments

D. outdoors

G87.

The currently accepted model of radiation dose vs. effect used by regulatory agencies in determining dose standards is:

A. linear quadratic

B. exponential

C. Gaussian

D. linear with threshold

E. linear without threshold

G88.

The current models of radiation dose vs. effect assume that a single exposure of 100 mSv delivered to 1,000 people will cause ______ additional cancer deaths in that group compared to an unexposed group of the same size:

A. 0

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

E. 16

G89.

The NCRP recommends that radiation monitoring devices shall be used by personnel who:

A. require radiation for medical purposes

B. work in an area that contains a radiation source

C. could be exposed to more than 1/4 of the maximum permissible dose (MPD)

D. could be exposed to more than 2 mR in any one hour.

E. all of the above

G90.

The difference in the value of maximum permissible dose for occupationally exposed persons vs. members of the general public was decided on by considering:

1. The relative population sizes of the two groups.

2. The utilization of medical exams and follow-up by the two groups.

3. Comparison with the risks of other employment, such as sales work.

4. Acceptance of the increased risk by the occupationally exposed individuals

5. The relative age distributions of the two groups.

A. 1,5

B.2,3,4

C. 1, 3,4

D.1,2,4,5

E. all of the above

G91. Visible light has a wavelength of approximately 6 x 10*-5 m. Cobalt-60 gamma-rays have a wavelength of 1 x 10*-10 m and an energy of 1.2 MeV. What is the approximate energy of the light pbotons?

A. 720 MeV

B. 2eV

C. 2x l0*-6eV

D. 2x 10*-4eV

G92.

When designing the shielding between a radiation room and a linen closet which is accessed by the radiation department staff, the occupancy factor which should be used for the closet is:

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 1/4

D. 1/8

E. 1/16

G93. When designing shielding for both a fully occupied non-controlled area, a non-controlled area, and a controlled area adjacent to a radiation facility, the barrier for the non-controlled area will need to be ____ HVLs thicker.

A.  50

B. 10

C. 6

D. 2

E. 1

G94.

The quantity that an ionization chamber actually measures is:

A.  roentgen

B.  gray

C.  charge

D.  kerma

E.  voltage

G95.

Geiger counters:

A. are sensitive enough to detect individual photons or particles

B. are less sensitive than ionization chambers

C. are used to calibrate linac output

D. operate on the principle of scintillation

G96. A patient who had an iodine-125 seed prostate implant 3 years ago is admitted for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The activity implanted was 25 mCi. The half-life of iodine-125 is 60 days. Which of the following is true?

A. radiographs should not be attempted, as radiation from the seeds would fog the film

B. the physician performing the TURP should wear a Pb apron and Pb gloves

C. the TURP should not be attempted, because of the radiation hazard to OR staff

D. none of the above are true

G97.

A High Radiation Area sign must be posted at the entrance of all areas where the exposure rate can be:

A. >l00mR/hr

B. >l0mR/hr

C. >2mR/hr

D. >100mR/wk

E. none of the above

G98.

In designing shielding to a controlled area (0.1 R/wk) for an x-ray machine, WUT = 150 mA-min/week and d = 3.0 meters. If the output at I meter is 0.1 R/mA-s, the minimum shielding required is TVLs.  (Tenth Value Layers)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

G99.

The maximum allowable amount of removable radioactive contamination from beta or gamma sources in a controlled area (evaluated by wipe testing) is ______ d.p.m. /I00 cm2.

A.  5,000

B.  500

C. 100

D.  50

E. 10

Dl.

Approximately ______ % of the energy imparted by electrons which bombard the anode of an x-ray tube is converted into x-ray photons.

A. 90

B. 75

C. 50

D. 25

E. None of the above

D2.

The intensity of x-rays produced in an exposure are affected by all of the following factors except:

A. Tube potential

B. Anode material

C. Tube current

D. Exposure duration

E. Collimation

D3.

As the subject contrast decreases, the visualization  of objects is limited to all of the following, except

A. High atomic number materials

B. Larger object sizes

C. Small focal spot sizes

D. Large density differences

E. Contrast enhanced tissue

D4.

 _______ are the mathematical depiction of any image shape in terms of sine and cosine waves of varying  amplitudes and phase shifts.

A. Bessel functions

B. Fourier transforms

C. Taylor series

D. Legendre polynomials

E. Back projections

D5.

The following film processor parameters alI affect mammography image quality, except:

A. Replemishment rates

B. Developer concentration

C. Developer temperature

D. Nitrate depletion

E. Developer immersion time

D6-DlO.

Match the following items with the questions below:

A. Step up transformer

B. Step down transformer

C. Autotransformer

D. Diode rectifiers

E. Automatic Exposure Control (AEC)

D6. This device provides the voltage for the filament circuit of the x-ray tube.

D7. These devices control the direction of the electron flow and make certain the electrons always flow from the cathode to the anode in the x-ray tube.

D8. This device terminates the x-ray exposure when the radiation to the image receptor reaches a predetermined level.

D9. This device provides the high voltages for the x-ray tube.

D1O. This device monitors and regulates the input voltage from the electric power lines to the x-ray circuits.

D11-13.

For each of the following statements concerning mammography, select the one lettered statement (A through E) that is most clearly associated with it. Each lettered statement may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A.  Increased subject contrast.

B.  Increased x-ray tube rating.

C.  Increased geometric unsharpness.

D.  Decreased patient dose.

E.  Elimination of crossover and parallax effects.

D11. Uses low kVp technique.

D12. Employs thick single emulsion film.

D13. Uses breast compression.

D14.

Concerning mammography, the following are true except:

A. In magnification mammography, small focal spots are essential to increase geometric sharpness.

B. Sensitometry is performed to monitor film processor stability.

C. Typical focal spot sizes are 0.6 mm (large focus) and 0.3 mm (small focus).

D. Typical half-value-layers of the x-ray beam are below 0.5 mm Al.

E. The typical filtration material is molybdenum.

D 15-17.

For each of the following statements regarding screen-flIm craniocaudal mammography with a grid, select the one lettered statement (A through E) that is most closely associated with it. Each lettered statement may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A.  3.0 mGy (300 mrad)

B.  l.2mGy(120 mrad)

C.  0.3 mGy (30 mrad)

D.  8.0 mGy (800 mrad)

E.  30 mGy (3000 mrad)

D15. Skin dose to a 4.5 cm thick compressed breast.

D16. Typical average glandular dose per view to a 4.5 cm thick compressed breast.

D17. The FDA limit for the average glandular dose per view to a 4.5 cm thick compressed breast.

D18.

Electron interactions in an anode target which produces x-rays include:

A. Compton interactions.

B. Electron deceleration.

C. Ionization.

D. Electron capture.

E. Only B and C.

D19-21.

In the following questions concerning FDA requirements for mammography quality control tests, select the one lettered statement (A through E) that is most closely associated with it.

A. Annually.

B. Semi-Annually.

C. Quarterly.

D. Weekly.

E. Daily.

D19. Darkroom fog, screen-film contact and compression tests should be completed at a minimum frequency of ______ .

D20. Processor quality control and darkroom cIeanliness tests should be completed at a minimum frequency of ______ .

D21. Breast entrance exposure and average glandular dose tests should be completed at a minimum frequency of_______ .

D22.

If you want to obtain 0.2% noise at 95% confidence over a particular area of a radiographic film, how many information carriers do you need in that area?

A. 10*2

B. 10*4

C. 10*5

D. 10*6

E. 10*10

D23-27.

In radiography, x-ray exposure to a screen-film image receptor is adjusted to produce an optical density of 1.2 (base + fog) on the resultant image.

Answer A for True, B for False.

D23. Greater screen thickness will decrease patient dose.

D24. Greater screen thickness will yield reduced image noise.

D25. Greater screen thickness will yield reduced limiting spatial resolution.

D26 Using rare-earth instead of a normal screen will yield increased image noise.

D27. Using rare-earth screen instead of a normal screen will yield a faster screen-film system.

D28.

An x-ray film with an optical density of 1.3:

A.  Has an opacity of 3.

B.  Is too dark.

C.  Has 30% lower transmittance compared with a film with optical density of 1.0.

D.  Has 30% higher transmittance compared with a film with optical density of 1.0.

E.  Has a transmittance of 5%.

D29-31.

In the attached figure, for each number listed below, select the most appropriate letter (A through E) that most closely relates to it. Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. 2.0 B. 3.0 C. 0.8 D. 1.8 E.1.5

D29. The average gradient of the film is _____

D30. At constant kVp, doubling the exposure that results in an optical density of 0.5 will give an optical density of about ___

D31. Exposure under bone would produce a film density of about _

D32.

In x-ray film processing:

A. Increasing the development time for an automatic film processor is associated with decreased film contrast.

B. The last step in film processing is the fixer.

C. The photographic advantage of a double emulsion is important only when the film is exposed with intensifying screens.

D. Increasing the temperature of the deveIoper will decrease film fog.

E.  Replenishment solutions must contain bromide to maintain the activity of the developer.

D33.

Low specific gravity of the developer solution (dilution of the chemistry) for the processing of radiographs will:

A. Increase film contrast gradient

B. Increase "base + fog"

C. Decrease film speed

D. Decrease archival storage

K All of the above

D34.

Compared with single emulsion film systems, double screen, double emulsion films in radiography:

A. Are less sensitive to processor artifacts

B. Are associated with a higher patient dose

C. Produce better image contrast

D. Produce higher spatial resolution

E. Are associated with lower speed

D35.

Daily quality control of an x-ray film processor includes tests of all of the following except:

A. Base and fog density

B. Speed

C. Contrast

D. Replenishment rate

E. Developer temperature

D36.

The Larmor frequency in MRI is directly proportional to the:

A. Gradient strength

B. Magnetic field strength

C. Molecular length

D. Atomic number

E. Proton density

D37.

AlI of the following represent types of MRI pulse sequences, except:

A. Echo planar

B. Magnetization transfer

C. Inversion recovery

D. Gradient echo

E. Phase coupled

D38.

The signal to noise ratio (SNR) can be improved in MRI studies by:

A. Thinner slice thickness

B. Smaller pixel sizes

C. More NEX

D. Short TR times

E. Low magnetic field strengths

D39.

The recoverable portion of the T2 relaxation decay can be attributed to:

A. Thin slices

B. Magnetic field inhomogeneities

C. Computer round off errors

D. Aliasing

E. Saturation effects

D40.

Although MRI units do not utilize ionizing radiation, safety concerns for MRI units include all of the following factors, except:

A.  Fringe magnetic field interference

B.  Electrical potential induction in neurons

C.  RF heating effects

D. Ferromagnetic surgical clips in patients.

E.  Flying metallic objects

D41.

Concerning computed radiography (CR):

A. It uses solid state detectors to capture x-ray exposure patterns.

B. It has superior spatial resolution when compared to film.

C. It is ideal for performing portable x-ray examinations when phototiming cannot be used.

D. The method is associated with high reject repeat rates.

E. The image capture, image storage, and image display Systems are performed by the receiver.

D42-46.

You are shown a receiver-operatlng-characteristic (ROC) curve obtained during a diagnostic system evaluation. In the following questions answer A for True and B for False.

D42. The area under the ROC curve is a measure of overall image performance.

D43. As the imaging performance improves, the ROC curve moves away from the upper left-hand corner.

D44. The dotted diagonal line represeni% random guessing with no predicted value.

D45. Point 1 represents an area of high specificity.

D46. As imaging system signal-to-noise ratio improves, the ROC curve will move towards point 3.

D47.

In counting an RIA blood sample, you record 3400 counts in the sample and 800 counts for background.  Both samples were counted for 8 minutes. What is the standard deviation of the net sample count?

A.  (3400+800/8)*1/2

B.  (3400)*1/2 - (800)*1/2

C.  (3400-800)*1/2

D.  (3400+800)*1/2

E.   (3400)*1/2 + (800)*1/2

D48.

Concerning the use of 12:1 versus 8:1 anti-scatter focused grids in radiography.

A.  Better image contrast is seen with the 12:1 grid

B.  More patient exposure with the 12:1 grid

C.  Distance decentering is less important with the 8:1 grid

D.  Lateral decentering is less important with the 8: 1 grid

E. All of the above are correct

D49-51. You are shown a table listing the results of a hypothetical test used to detect the presence or absence of a certain disease in a mixed population. The disease is either present (D+) or absent (D-), and the test is either positive (T+) or negative (T-).  For each measure of test performance (49 through 51), select the corresponding value.

                            T+                    T-

D+                     30                     10

D-                      20                     20

D49. Specificity.

D50. Sensitivity.

D51. Accuracy.

A.  0.325

B.  0.500

C. 0.750

D. 0.625

E.  0.85

D52.

Cerebral angiography with iodinated compounds:

A. Results in higher contrast at high kVp.

B. Employs large focal spot size to improve tube rating.

C. Uses magnification to improve fine vessel visualization.

D. Relies principally on differences in density.

E. Is dominated by Compton scattering of x-rays.

D53.

For GI fluorosoopy units, the best spatial resolution is obtained with the:

A. Television monitor

B.  l00mrn FSFC

C. Digital spot image

D. Spot film cassette

E. Direct image intensifier (1.1.) viewing

D54.

L-4 is radiographed at a focus to film distance of 120 cm and an object to film distance of 30 cm. The width of the L-4 on the radiograph measures 32 mm. The true width is:

A.  24mm

B.  40mm

C. 18mm

D.  l28mm

E.  10.6m

D55.

If the focus-film distance is increased from 100 cm to 120 cm, for equal film density the exposure time has to be:

A. Increased by a factor of 1.2

B. Increased by a factor of 1.44

C. Decreased by a factor of 0.83

D. Decreased by a factor of 0.68

E. Unchanged

D56.

According to the new ACR standards, small-matrix imaging systems (CT, MRI, ultrasound, nuclear medicine, and digital fluoroscopy):

A. Require digitization systems with a minimum of 0.5K x 0.5K x 8 bit array.

B. Require display systems with a minimum of 0.25k x 0.25K x 12 bit array.

C. Require display systems with a minimum of 2K x 2K x 8 bit array.

D. Require digitization systems with a minimum of 2K x 2K x 12 bit array.

E. Require less-stringent guidelines for display systems when these display systems are used to produce the official authenticated written interpretation.

D57.

In picture archiving and communication systems (PACS), large-matrix (digitized radiographic films, and computed radiography) display stations should include all of the following except:

A. A magnification function

B. Interactive window and level functions

C. Ability to accurately measure the linear attenuation coefficient

D. Ability to invert the gray-scale values of the displayed image

E. Ability to rotate and flip the displayed images

D58.

In digital subtraction angiography:

A. One can visualize contrast differences of less than 1 % in x-ray transmission.

B. Entrance skin exposure with a 23 cm image intensifier input produces 1.5 to 2 mR / frame.

C. The noise level in the subtracted image Is less than the noise in the mask image.

D. Pixel shift is one method to correct for the dominance of random noise.

E. The resolution achieved is typically better than 4 Ip/mm.

D59.

The principal source of radiation exposure to personnel during fluoroscopy is:

A. leakage radiation from the x-ray tube.

B. Scattered radiation from the patient.

C. Scattered radiation from inside the image Intensifier.

D. Penetration of electron beam through the image intensifier.

E. Scattered radiation from the walls and floor.

D60.

The fluoroscopic operating factors displayed in a monitor are 120 kVp and 10 mA; which of the following is true?

A. The skin entrance dose is unusually low.

B. The five minute timer is broken.

C. The skin entrance dose is extremely high.

D. The display must be wrong.

E The anti-scatter grid is not in the beam.

D61-63.

For each of the following statements listed below relating to fluoroscopy, select the one lettered statement (A through E) that is most closely associated with it. Each letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

D61. The primary reason to place the image intensifier as close to the patient as possible.

D62. The primary reason to utilize a small input size image intensifier.

D63. The primary reason to utilize a small size output phosphor.

A.  Reduced image magnification.

B.  Cover less body tissue.

C.  Reduce patient dose.

D.  Improve image resolution.

E.   Obtain minification gain.

D64.

Concerning radiation management in special procedures with fluoroscopy; which of the following operational factors reduces image quality?

A.  Higher tube current, mA

B. Increased source to skin distance 

C. Decreased image intensifier to patient distance

D. Increased collimator opening

E.  lower kVp

D65.

In order to minimize patient radiation dose, many modem fluoroscopic x-ray systems employ all the following factors, except:

A.  Pulsed exposures (Pulsed fluoroscopy)

B.  Automatic iris

C.  TV automatic gain control (AGC)

D.   Freeze frame capture

E.   Long SIDs

D6

A. 200

B. 300

C. 600

D. 1600

E. 2400

D67-69.

Concerning radiation interaction with matter, select the one lettered answer (A through E) that is most closely associated with the questions. Each letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A.  Compton scattering

B.  Photo disintegration

C.  Photoelectric effect

D.  Pair production

E.  Bremsstrahlung

D67. The primary interaction of 99mTc photons in soft tissue.

D68. The primary interaction of 30 kVp x-ray tube photons with breast tissue.

D69. The primary interaction of 201 Tl photons in bone.

D70.

A.  15

B.  12

C.  9

D.  6

E.  3

D71-73. Concerning the design of anger camera collimators, select the letter that is most closely associated with the question.

k Converging collimator B. Diverging collimator C. Pirallel hole collimator D. Pinhole collimator K Auto collimator

D71. The collimator which produces a miniflixi image and l'OV increases with the distance from its surface is

D72. The collimator which produces the same object size and does not change the FOV with distance is

D73. The collimator which generates an inveited image and creates a decrease in FOV away from the surface is

D74. Concerning image contrast in nuclear m~xiiciaL' imaging:

A. Contrast is generally poor duc to radiation scattering efTects.

B. Septal penetration decreases image contrast.

C. Increas~ target to background uptake ratio increases image contrast,

D. Improved contrast is produced with SPECT.

K ALL of the above except A.

D75. The resolution in SPECT imaging:

A. Is generally poorer than for planner imaging.

B. Is better with elliptical gamma camera travel (rotation).

C. Increases with decreasing crystal thickness'.

D. Is affected by the reconstruction algorithm.

K ALL of the above.

RAPHFX ~ OQucition: OPage 23

D76. Which of the following methods can be used to evaluate gamma camera uniformity?

A. "~c point source at a 2 meter distatice from the crystal without a collimator.

B. 99mTc flood source with a coUiniator.

C. 57Co disc source with a collimator.

D. 137Cs point source with a collimator

E.OnlyA, B, andC

D77. The acoustic impedance of various body tissues depends upon:

A. Sound waves frequency and the tissue viscosity.

B. Sound waves wavelength and the tissue density.

C. The tissue elasticity and the susceptibility.

D. The sound waves speed and the tissue density.

E. None of the above.

D78. Color Doppler ultrasound measure%. blood how based upon information from all of the following factors,

except:

A. Impedance

B. Wavelength

C. Ultrasound speed

D. Angle of incidence

E. Frequency shift

D79. The radiation dose from an adinini%.~tered radiopliannaceutical is directly dependent upon all the following

factors, except:

A. Organ mass

B. Effective half-life

C. iy~ of radiation emitted

D. Radiation energy

E. Biodistribution

DSO. In brightness mode ultrasound imaging:

A. Axial resolution is generally equal to the pulse length.

B. The pulse repetition rate determines the maximum penetration depth.

C. Axial resolution decreases as 'he frequency increa.'~s.

D. Tissue penetration increases as wavetei'~th deercases.

E. The pulse repetition rate is generally I Ml lz.

D81. Concerning ultrasound, reverberation artif.'icts are caused by:

A. Scattering from small objects.

B. Decrease in signal intensity in air.

C. Multiple reflections from two adjacent ititertaces.

D. Random signals produced in the electronics of the transducer.

E. Patient movemenL

D82. In Doppler ultrasound:

k Doppler imaging detects changes in the speed of sound from a moving sample.

B. I--Ow Q-factor transducers are dC.%irahle.

C. Doppler systems tend to use kiwer 'req uwicies than B-mode systems.

D. Doppler shift decreases when the angle between transducer and direction of flow is decreased.

E. Continuous Doppler employs one tran'~.~ucer used as a transmitter and receiver.

RAPHEX i997 0 Queslions 0 Page 24

D83. Concerning ultrasound transducers:

A. 2 MHz endorectat transducers are used lor imaging the prostate.

B. 5 MHz curvilinear arrays are used for large superficial organs, such as a large breasL

C. 8 to 20 MHz transducers are used for abdominal itnaging.

D. Low Q-facior transducers use a crystal without hacking material.

E. A small diameter transducer las a longer focal zone.

D84. The Computerized Tomography Dose Index (CTDI) for a series of consecutive CT slices of the abdomen

ia~e~'ef with all the following factors. except:

A. More CT slices

B. Higher kVp, same mAs

C. I-arger abdomen size

D. Surface versus the center of thebody

E. Higher mAs

D85. Most CT scanner displays have 256 gray scales. In order to display air as black and have the gray scale

gradually changing until bone is white, the window level should be set at ______ H.U. and the window

width should be set at ______ H.U.

A. 200,1200

B. 0, 500

C. 0,2000

D.200, 1500

E. 1000,4000

D86. An object which has a linear attenuation ci~flicicni which is 20% greater than water has a CT number equal to _____ Hounsfield uniL~.

A.2

B. 12

D. 200

E. Cannot be determined

D87. Desirable characteristics of radi'.'ti~~ detectors used in CT scanners include all of the following factors,

except:

A. High absorption efficiency

B. High geometric efficiency

C. Isotropic response

D. Fast temporal response

E. Small size

D88. In order to minimize volume averaging (partial v(~ume) artifacts in CT images, it is important to:

~ Use small focal sItots

B. Use larger radiation doscs

C. Use low kVp

D. Use edge enhancement algorithms

E. Use thin CT slices

D89. If a CT scan is performed with twice the IloTmal mAs and half the normal slice thickness, the CT noise is

_______ the previous value.

A. Increased by 4 times

B. lncreasedby2 times

C. The same as

D.Decreasedto 1/2

E. Decreased to 1/4

D90. In comparison to a 2400 foot magnetic tape, a 2.0 Gigabyte optical disk can store times as many

uncompressed CT images.

A. 1/50

B. 1/15

C. Same

D. 15

E. 50

~1. The computational speed of a computer is measured in units of:

A.MB

B. MIPS

C. RVU

D.BAUD

E. BPI

~2. In order to make certain thai an error in one of die digital numbers being stored has not occurred, a

computer system often perfotins a _______ check of the stored numbers:

A. Convergence

B. Unearity

C. Parity

D. Divergence

E. Compliance

~3. The most sensitive organ for fatal cancer iI)ducti(n as a result of radiation exposure is the:

A. Bladder

B. Bone marrow

C. Lung

D. Stomach

K Thyroid

~4. Regulations limit the radiation dose equivalent to the fetus of pregnant radiation workers to ______

~Sv/month.

A. 5000

B.500

C.50

D. 10

K None of the above

RAPHI':x I~7 0 Qunfion.~ 0 Pa~e 26

RAPHEX J997 OQue:dons OPage 25

1)95. Although radiation workers are permitted Ii~ roceive 0.05 .%iCverl~ per year, most radiologists are exposed to an effective dose equivalent Ies.% thai' 1/10 of thl%. value. The risk of fatal cancer for a 40 year career at this level of radiation expo%urc is a~)uI:

A. 0.0001 B. 0.001 C. 0.01 DOlO

E. 0.20

1)96-100. In the following questions concerning the genetically significant dose (GSD), answer A for True and B for False.

1)96. The GSD for the US population is estimaled a~ 2 mGy (200 mrad).

1)97. Chest x-rays in premature n~)nate.%' contribute tO the GSD.

1)98. KUB in a 35-year old vasectotnized maic m~ike.' no contribution to the GSD.

1)99. Fluoroscopy of the hip in a 70-year old teinale add.~ to the GSD.

D1OO. Ultrasound scan in a 25-year otd fe~alc %.~h()uId be c(~sidered when calculating the GSD.

DiOl. If after passing through 6 cm of ab%~orhcr, 32000 incident photons of a monoenergetic beam are reduced to

2000. How much additional ahsc~ber is itecded I(~ turther reduce the number to 500.

A. 1.5 cm

B.3cm

C. 4.5 cm

D.6cm

E.9cm

RAPrn:x ~997 OQueslions OFue' 27